It is known that unionized men earn, on average, 40% more than nonunionized men. However, the unionized men are employed in sectors where salaries are generally higher, and their nonunionized peers in these sectors earn nearly the same. Thus, it can be concluded that unionization does not enhance men's wages.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines this conclusion?

Answer Choices

Correct answer marked below

(A) Unions also negotiate for additional benefits like retirement plans and job security.

(B) The highest earning men typically hold managerial roles, which are often not unionized.

(D) Nonunionized men in a sector frequently see salary increases due to raises negotiated by unions for other workers in the same sector.

Correct

(E) The unionization of men at one company in a sector often leads to the unionization of men at other companies in that sector.

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Explanation

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Official Explanation

Official

The argument states that unionization does not raise men's wages because unionized men earn more, but they work in higher-paying sectors, and their nonunionized counterparts earn similarly. To weaken this argument, we need evidence that suggests unionization does have a positive impact on wages. Option (D) states that nonunionized men…

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Comments

ChahitaJan 17, 2025

thanksss

AditiFeb 14, 2025

thanksss

GonzaloFeb 27, 2025

finally understood this

PradNov 17, 2024

thanks!

What this question tests

What it tests

Whether you can identify the option that most undermines an argument's conclusion.

Common trap

Choosing an irrelevant objection or one that attacks the premise rather than the reasoning.