It is observed that unionized men earn, on average, more than 40% more than nonunionized men do. However, the unionized men are employed in sectors where salaries are generally high, and their nonunionized peers in these sectors earn nearly the same as they do. Thus, it can be concluded that unionization does not enhance men’s wages.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument above?

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Correct answer marked below

The most highly compensated men are in managerial roles, which are typically not unionized.

Unionized workers often receive additional benefits such as retirement plans and job security.

Wage levels in various sectors differ significantly across different regions, irrespective of union status.

Nonunionized men in a sector frequently benefit from wage increases due to negotiations made by unions representing other workers in the same sector.

Correct

The unionization of men working for one company in a specific sector often leads to the unionization of men working for other companies in that sector.

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Explanation

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Official Explanation

Official

The argument claims that unionization does not raise men's wages because unionized men earn more, but they work in high-paying sectors where nonunionized men earn similarly. To weaken this argument, we need evidence that suggests unionization does have a positive effect on wages. Option D states that nonunionized men in a sector…

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Comments

ShubhankarMar 3, 2025

thanks

adityaMar 16, 2025

Love how you solved this

ShagunJul 19, 2024

got this wrong on my practice

SnehamAug 10, 2024

cheers!

What this question tests

What it tests

Whether you can identify the option that most undermines an argument's conclusion.

Common trap

Choosing an irrelevant objection or one that attacks the premise rather than the reasoning.